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A 35-year-old African American man was diagnosed with MS 4 years ago. He is a smoker, his first attack was multifocal, and he was positive for oligoclonal bands in CSF at the time of diagnosis. His disease modifying therapy is IFNβ-1b. Although he has tolerated it well and has been consistently taking his injections, his recent MRI shows signs of breakthrough disease activity, with 6 new T2 lesions including 3 in the cerebellum. Which of the following would be most advisable?
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for discussing DMT selection in a patient who is already hesitant in starting treatment?
Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor for severe disability in a patient with MS?
What is your primary area of clinical focus?
How many years have you been in practice?
How confident are you in managing patients with MS?